Hmm...I was reading through this thread, and found it quite interesting. And for once, I actually have a comment to make.
I don’t know that we can consider Gollum to be schizophrenic in the conventional sense. According to dictionary.com, Schizophrenia is associated with dopamine imbalances in the brain and defects of the frontal lobe and is caused by genetic, other biological, and psychosocial factors.
Thus it seems that in general, schizophrenia is the result of some internal cause--brain imbalance, genetics, etc. However, in Gollum’s case, his schizophrenia is the result of an external factor (i.e. the Ring). His schizophrenia is entirely Ring-induced, and without the Ring he would have been fine. Now, don’t get me wrong, I’m not trying to say that he would have been a nice, innocent, happy character without the influence of the Ring. Evidence already given in this thread has shown that he was not a nice creature even before the finding of the Ring. However, without the Ring, ’Gollum’ would not have come into existence, and even though ’Smeagol’ would not necessarily be a nice person, the schizophrenia would not exist.
Since the schizophrenia is induced by an outside factor, can Gollum’s condition really be called schizophrenia? I’m no expert, I really don’t know much about the disease--but, just to play Devil’s Advocate, I wanted to put that out there.
~All that is gold does not glitter; not all those who wander are lost.~